FINRA-Like SIE Practice Exam and Questions

Our FINRA-like SIE practice test comprises practice questions from all four sections included in the content outline for the SIE exam.

The test has 75 multiple-choice questions, and each question has four answer choices. Here’s how the questions are divided:

SectionDescriptionNo. of Questions
1Knowledge of Capital Markets12
2Understanding Products and Their Risks33
3Understanding Trading, Customer Accounts and
Prohibited Activities
23
4Overview of the Regulatory Framework7
Similar to the FINRA SIE actual exam, our practice test has a time limit of 1 hour and 45 minutes. You need to score at least 70% in order to pass.

SIE Practice Exam (FINRA-Like)

For the SIE (Securities Industry Essentials) exam, you will generally learn about the fundamental aspects of the financial industry, including Capital Markets, Products and Their Risks, Trading, Customer Accounts, and Prohibited Activities, as well as the Regulatory Framework that governs these activities.

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1. The term ‘disclaimer’ is most often associated with the fact that:

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2. One of the primary risks associated with mortgage-backed securities is prepayment risk. This tends to present itself when

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3. A customer requests in writing that the firm hold his account statements while he spends the winter in Florida. In response to the customer’s request, the firm is permitted to honor the request

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4. That most basic tenet of a suitability determination is the:

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5. Dollar limits on 529 plan contributions per beneficiary are set by

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6. A corporate bond that is currently trading at 95 pays a semi-annual coupon of $25. What is the current yield?

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7. Exercise of an equity put option involves the writer:

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8. Pre-emptive Rights and Stock Warrants have a number of similarities. Which of the below represent characteristics these products have in common?

I. Each has a fixed price at which the holder may purchase shares of the issuer’s common stock.

II. The fixed exercise price for both products is initially set at a level below the current market value of the common stock.

III. These products are tradable on securities exchanges

IV. Both have relatively short-term expiration dates

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9. All investors with short option positions:

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10. Penny stocks present added risk to customers because of

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11. The term ‘issuer’ most often refers to:

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12. Stabilizing is a term generally used in Wall Street to refer to the practice of:

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13. A communication made available to 20 institutional clients and 20 retail clients is classified as

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14. Trader R hears news from an underwriter that his firm will buy a large block of XYZ Co stock. If R buys shares of the stock before the news is made public, he is engaged in

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15. All of the following sectors are considered cyclical EXCEPT

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16. The primary difference between a stock dividend and a cash dividend is:

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17. The hours of operation of the Chicago Board Options Exchange are:

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18. Bonds that are issued by state and local governments but benefit a private corporate are

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19. When the market price of a bond is lower than its par value,

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20. All of the following are full disclosure documents used in the sale of securities with the exception of:

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21. The Nasdaq market is a(n)

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22. An upward sloping yield curve indicates

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23. United States government budgetary and taxation policies are best described as:

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24. Single stock, or single sector, risk is more generally in the category described as:

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25. An individual contacts her financial representative to sell her mutual fund shares. The price she will receive is

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26. Absent exceptional circumstances, NASDAQ trades during business hours are reported within:

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27. Your client wishes to make a substantial investment in a mutual fund your firm is offering. In order to qualify for a reduced sales load, they sign a letter of intent which gives them:

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28. The threshold to qualify for a sales charge discount on a mutual fund is $75,000. An investor places an order for $72,500 of this fund and is not informed by the registered rep that he would be entitled to a sales charge discount if he invests an additional $2,500. This is an example of a

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29. The Securities & Exchange Commission (SEC) was created by Congress in:

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30. In order to receive a dividend, a shareholder must own stock as of the

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31. Sweeteners as that term is used in the investment banking community refers to issue enhancements which include:

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32. When institutional investment managers open brokerage accounts at several clearing broker-dealers, those clearing broker-dealers process the transactions and have the back-office clearing and processing handled through a single broker-dealer. This firm is identified in the SEC and FINRA regulations as a:

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33. When must the brokerage firm deliver a customer confirmation to the customer?

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34. The least liquidity in the securities shown below would be found:

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35. A market maker is obligated

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36. In order for a registered representative to maintain their securities license on an ongoing basis, which of the following properly states the CE requirements?

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37. Choose from among the below ratings the one which is the higher credit rating in the speculative category as defined by Standard & Poors rating service would be:

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38. Accrued interest is calculated from the

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39. Keynesian economic theory deals with:

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40. The theory that says the economy is best controlled through taxation and government spending is known as

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41. Accumulation units are most often associated with:

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42. When one of the individuals in an account opened as Tenants in Common dies, their share of the account:

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43. When a corporation goes public, it is issuing:

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44. An investor has 100 shares of XYZ stock at $90 per share. After a 3-for-1 split, the investor can expect to own

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45. ETPs (exchange-traded products) generally include:

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46. When a corporation announces that it is seeking additional equity capital through a sale of additional authorized but unissued shares,

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47. To avoid double taxation on dividends paid to shareholders, REITs must invest what portion of their total assets in real estate?

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48. Every publicly-traded corporation is required to have a transfer agent and a registrar. The primary distinction between the two is:

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49. A representative’s personal account has been identified for review because of account activity in which securities were bought and quickly sold, often on the following day. This may be evidence of the prohibited practice called

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50. Which of the bonds listed below would have the greatest price volatility?

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51. Investors whose bonds have been called as interest rates have fallen are now facing

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52. Investors purchase common stock primarily for

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53. XYZ Inc. declares a $0.30 dividend payable on Monday, August 15, to all shareholders of record as of Monday, August 8. When is the ex-dividend date for a regular way trade in the stock?

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54. A customer of a brokerage firm must receive a customer account statement with which of the following frequencies?

I. Monthly if there has been any activity in the account

II. Monthly

III. Weekly if there has been any activity in the account

IV. A minimum of at least quarterly

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55. For existing customer accounts, how often do broker-dealers required to send a written notice to the customer for verification of account information?

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56. A husband and wife wish to open a brokerage account in which the husband will own 60% and the wife 40%. At either owner’s death, the owner’s portion will be liquidated and distributed to his/her beneficiary. What type of account should they open?

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57. During the accumulation phase of a variable annuity, dividends, interest, and capital gains

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58. What type of order should Martin enter if his objective is to buy 500 shares of Cisco stock as soon as possible at the best price available?

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59. A significant number of public investors do not have a solid understanding of how common stock is offered to the public. Two methods are the secondary offering and the follow-on offering. Which of the below are true statements regarding these methods?

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60. With regard to the price of closed-end fund shares held by investors, which of the following statements is TRUE?

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61. The credit quality of an exchange-traded note is

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62. Among the differences between an introducing broker-dealer and a clearing carrying broker-dealer is that clearing firms:

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63. A client of yours purchased 1000 shares of RAL common stock on Monday, February 11th in a cash account at a CMV of $115 per share. The next day the stock moves to $128 on a very favorable news report and the client places an order to sell the 1000 shares at the market. On the Reg. T payment date the client has not paid for the purchase and asks that liquidation proceeds be used to cover the cost of the purchase.

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64. All the following are exempt from the registration requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 except

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65. The so-called 5% policy pertains to

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66. Though there are numerous business sectors in the US economy, companies generally fall into three distinct categories:

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67. When growth is the principal objective of the investor, each of the below could be suitable except:

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68. When the term ‘shelf registration’ is used, it typically refers to:

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69. Recommending a limited partnership DPP investment to a customer would be a defendable recommendation for a client:

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70. The Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC) protects customers from

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71. A company “reverse splits” its stock on a 1-for-10 basis. If an investor holds 800 shares before the event, what will be the impact of the split, if any, on the total value of the investors’ shares?

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72. The writer of an option contract is said to have:

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73. Diversification is a very effective way for an investor to mitigate:

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74. Passive losses generated by a limited partnership may be used to reduce which of the following?

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75. All of the below are typical features of an ETF except:

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Looking for More In-Dept Practice Questions?

If you’re looking for a more comprehensive practice exam, check out our other sets of practice tests below. Practice Test 1 focuses on Knowledge of Capital Markets, #2 is on Understanding Products and Their Risks, Test 3 is on Trading, Customer Accounts, and Prohibited Activities, and an Overview of the Regulatory Framework for SIE Practice Exam 4.

Which topic are you interested in taking a practice exam? Just click it below.